Yesterday I mentioned some comments that Ken Myers made about George Barna's book, Revolution and he pointed out a fundamental error in Barna's understanding of the church. Myers said that Barna derives his theology (ok, it's only with some imagination that we can call this a theology) of the church from the etymology of the Greek word for church - ekklesia - "called out."
In all fairness this is not unique to Barna, almost all evangelicals I have read have at least begun building a theology of the church on this etymology.
But, what Myers points out is that in the first century the word ekklesia was used primarily to designate an assembly. Barna is extreme, but he is not all that far off from other evangelicals in his understanding of the church, just more extreme in his application.
I thought Myers' comments were helpful because many of us are enamored with word studies and those who are enamored with word studies are often namored with etymologies. It is as if words have an essence of meaning which can be found in its etymology.
Yet, as D. A. Carson points out in his book Exegetical Fallacies, we have to be careful here:
One of the most enduring fallacies, the root fallacy presupposes that every word actually has a meaning bound up with its shape or its components. In this view, meaning is determined by etymology; that is by the roots of a word. How many times have we been told that because the verbal cognate of apostolos (apostle) is apostello (I send), the root meaning of "apostle" is "one who is sent."? In the preface of the New King James Bible, we are told that the literal meaning of monogenes is "only begotten." Is that true? How often do preachers refer to the verb agapao (to love), contrast it with phileo (to love) and deduce that the text is saying something about a special kind of loving, for no other reason than that agapao is used?
All of this is linguistic nonsense. We might have guessed as much if we were more acquainted with the etymology of English words. Anthony C. Thistleton offers by way of example our word nice, which comes from the Latin nescius, meaning "ignorant." Our "good-by" is a contraction for Anglo-Saxon "God be with you." Now it may be possible to trace out diachronically just how nesciusnice"; it is certainly easy to imagine how "God be with you" came to be "good-by." But I know of no one today who in saying that such and such a person is "nice" believes that he or she has in some measure labeled that person ignorant because the "root meaning" or "hidden meaning" or "literal meaning" of "nice" is "ignorant."
In Barna's case, as in many evangelicals, their reliance on etymology to determine the meaning of ekklesia is not in the same class as Thistleton's example of the word "nice." In that case, the etymology actually takes you away from the contemporary meaning of the word. In our case, the etymology of ekklesia does point you in the right direction, it just doesn't take you all the way to where you need to go.
As an aside, Carson's mention of "agapao" does illustrate a case where we can fall into the "nice" trap mentioned above. I usually hear that the root of agapao means "God's love" or something like that. Yet, how would you plug that "root meaning" into II Timothy 4:10:
for Demas, because he loved this world, has deserted me and has gone to Thessalonica.
In that verse, "agapao" is the Greek root for the word translated "love." Yet, I doubt anyone would say that it was "God's love" that motivated Demas to forsake Paul for the world. This is a good example of how etymology can lead one astray.
Yet, getting back to ekklesia, its usage was that of assembly. The Louw-Nida dictionary has the following entry:
11.32 ἐκκλησία, ας f: a congregation of Christians, implying interacting membership—‘congregation, church.’ τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ τοῦ θεοῦ τῇ οὔσῃ ἐν Κορίνθῳ ‘to the church of God which is in Corinth’ 1 Cor 1.2; ἀσπάζονται ὑμᾶς αἱ ἐκκλησίαι πᾶσαι τοῦ Χριστοῦ ‘all the churches of Christ greet you’ Ro 16.16.
Though some persons have tried to see in the term ἐκκλησία a more or less literal meaning of ‘called-out ones,’ this type of etymologizing is not warranted either by the meaning of ἐκκλησία in NT times or even by its earlier usage. The term ἐκκλησία was in common usage for several hundred years before the Christian era and was used to refer to an assembly of persons constituted by well- defined membership. In general Greek usage it was normally a socio-political entity based upon citizenship in a city-state (see ἐκκλησία, 11.78) and in this sense is parallel to δῆμος (11.78). For the NT, however, it is important to understand the meaning of ἐκκλησia as ‘an assembly of God’s people.’
In the rendering of ἐκκλησία a translator must beware of using a term which refers primarily to a building rather than to a congregation of believers. In many contexts ἐκκλησία may be readily rendered as ‘gathering of believers’ or ‘group of those who trust in Christ.’ Sometimes, as in 1 Cor 1.2, it is possible to translate ‘Paul writes to the believers in Christ who live in Corinth.’ Such a translation does, however, omit a significant element in the term ἐκκλησia, in that the sense of corporate unity is not specified.
This is important because so many people have built their doctrine of the church on the meaning of this one Greek word and thus have a truncated, insufficient understanding of the church. Basically, the New Testament usage for the term was that of an assembly, that of a congregation, but today many posit and endorse an assembly that never assembles.
I shoudl also point out that Carson points out that etymologies can be useful, they just have to be used in conjunction with other good hermeneutical principles.
You should read Emil Brunner "The Misunderstanding of the Church". I think you might find it interesting. I doubt you would agree with him 100% but he is very thought provoking. Brunner starts off looking at the word "Ekklesia" and works forwards from there. It's only a short book (140 pages if I'm correct) so shouldn't require too much effort
Posted by: Jon | July 19, 2006 at 11:40 AM
David:
"Nice" post.
Actually, your comment - "It is as if words have an essence of meaning which can be found in its etymology." - brought to mind a comment of Roger Sperry (of Nobel Prize fame). He once observed that you can't know the meaning of a word by examining the chemistry of the ink.
Etymology, as you say, is a useful tool but it has limitations and has to be balanced by other, equally important hermeneutical principles.
Posted by: Mike | July 19, 2006 at 03:09 PM
OK, this is great - two comments and two slams. Jon thinks I can't handle a book that takes any effort and Mike thinks I'm nice and ignorant!
Just funnin with you guys!
Posted by: David Wayne | July 19, 2006 at 03:54 PM
As Pratt would emphasize to us mental midgets, "Meaning is use."
In the Greek OT, ekklesia is used for the assembly. We see this as well in Acts 2. Does this rule out "called out"? Hades no! Israel was called out of Egypt. We've been called out of this evil age. But... we are also assembled in the presence of the Holy One. The use of the term in much of Scripture mandates we remember the aspect of assembly, not just the "called outedness" of the church.
Oh, can we stop talking about Barna????
Posted by: cavman | July 19, 2006 at 04:06 PM
A century ago, the word "gay" didn't mean what it does today. Neither did "martyr". They have both been hijacked and perverted of their orignal meaning, aided and abetted by popular culture. Get used to it.
Posted by: Former Corn Chuckin' Champ | July 19, 2006 at 04:41 PM
John Locke seriously presented the view that the component sounds in words have inherent meanings, and that's why words mean what they mean. It's amazing that someone could maintain such a view even just in light of other languages, which he fully would have known about. When you bring in meaning change, there's just no hope for it. But then we're talking about one of the most overrated philosophers in history here.
Posted by: Jeremy Pierce | July 20, 2006 at 11:40 AM
Everytime this comes up, be it while a person is speaking or in a book (or blog) I automatically think "Butterfly".
heh.
Posted by: Rey | July 20, 2006 at 11:57 AM
Well, first you load the butter in the catapult . . .
Posted by: Rob | July 22, 2006 at 09:02 PM
You quote from Louw, J. P., & Nida, E. A. 1996, c1989. Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament:
"11.32 ἐκκλησία, ας f: a congregation of Christians, implying interacting membership—‘congregation, church.’ τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ τοῦ θεοῦ τῇ οὔσῃ ἐν Κορίνθῳ ‘to the church of God which is in Corinth’ 1 Cor 1.2; ἀσπάζονται ὑμᾶς αἱ ἐκκλησίαι πᾶσαι τοῦ Χριστοῦ ‘all the churches of Christ greet you’ Ro 16.16.".
The Bible text itself contradicts this meaning three times in Acts 19:32, 39 and 41. Three times this Greek word is used to designate an assembly of town citizens without it carrying any religious overtone whatsoever. It was not a 'Christian' word and therefore its etymology can have NO Christian significance whatsoever.
You make some good points in this regard. Thank you.
Posted by: Lloyd Thomas | April 11, 2008 at 07:31 PM
"Basically, the New Testament usage for the term was that of an assembly, that of a congregation, and..."
I posit and endorse an assembly that readily and easily assembles anytime, anywhere two or three gather in the name of Jesus Christ."
Posted by: brother john | September 09, 2008 at 02:29 AM
Here is a challenging thought....Wasn't the bible originally written in Hebrew....If this is the case, how can anyone truly know the correct meaning of anything E.I. YHWH is the true name of "Jesus" which is proven because the letter "j" wasn't even invented until 500 years ago....Things to make you go....hmmmmm
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